401. Handover of
Testware is a part of which Phase
a) Test Analysis and
Design
b) Test Planning and
control
c) Test Closure Activities
d) Evaluating exit
criteria and reporting
402. The Switch is
switched off once the temperature falls below 18 and then it is turned on when
the
temperature is more
than 21. When the temperature is more than 21. Identify the Equivalance values
which belong to the
same class.
a) 12,16,22
b) 24,27,17
c) 22,23,24
d) 14,15,19
403. Which of the
following is a major task of test planning?
A Determining the test approach.
B Preparing test
specifications.
C Evaluating exit
criteria and reporting.
D Measuring and analyzing
results.
404. Which of the
following statements is MOST OFTEN true?
A Source-code inspections
are often used in component testing.
B Component testing searches for defects in programs that are
separately testable.
C Component testing is an
important part of user acceptance testing.
D Component testing aims
to expose problems in the interactions between software and hardware
components.
405. In a system designed
to work out the tax to be paid:
An employee has £4000 of
salary tax free.
The next £1500 is taxed
at 10%.
The next £28000 after
that is taxed at 22%.
Any further amount is
taxed at 40%.
To the nearest whole pound,
which of these groups of numbers fall into three DIFFERENT equivalence
classes?
A £4000; £5000; £5500.
B £32001; £34000; £36500.
C £28000; £28001; £32001.
D £4000; £4200; £5600.
406. Which of the
following will NOT be detected by static analysis?
A Parameter type
mismatches.
B Errors in requirements.
C Undeclared variables.
D Uncalled functions.
407. Which of the
following test activities can be automated?
i Reviews and
inspections.
ii Metrics gathering.
iii Test planning.
iv Test execution.
v Data generation.
A i, iii, iv.
B i, ii, iii.
C ii, iv, v.
D ii, iii, v.
408. Which of the
following is an objective of a pilot project for the introduction of a testing
tool?
A Evaluate testers’
competence to use the tool.
B Complete the testing of
a key project.
C Assess whether the benefits will be achieved at reasonable cost.
D Discover what the
requirements for the tool are.
409. What is the MAIN
purpose of a Master Test Plan?
A To communicate how
incidents will be managed.
B To communicate how testing will be performed.
C To produce a test
schedule.
D To produce a work
breakdown structure.
410. In a REACTIVE
approach to testing when would you expect the bulk of the test design work to
be
begun?
A After the software or system has been produced.
B During development.
C As early as possible.
D During requirements
analysis.
411. What is the objective
of debugging?
i To localise a defect.
ii To fix a defect.
iii To show value.
iv To increase the
range of testing.
A i, iii.
B ii, iii, iv.
C ii, iv.
D i, ii.
412. Given the following
decision table:
Rule 1 Rule 2 Rule 3 Rule
4
Conditions
UK resident? False True
True True
Age between 18 - 55?
Don’t care False True True
Smoker? Don’t care Don’t
care False True
Actions
Insure client? False
False True True
Offer 10% discount? False
False True False
What is the expected
result for each of the following test cases?
A.TC1: Fred is a 32 year
old smoker resident in London
B.TC3: Jean-Michel is a
65 year non-smoker resident in Paris
A A – Insure, 10%
discount, B – Insure, no discount.
B A – Don’t insure, B –
Don’t insure.
C A – Insure, no discount, B – Don’t insure.
D A – Insure, no
discount, B – Insure with 10% discount.
413. Which of the
following are valid objectives for testing?
i.To find defects.
ii.To gain confidence
in the level of quality.
iii.To identify the
cause of defects.
iv.To prevent defects.
A i,ii, and iii.
B ii, iii and iv.
C i, ii and iv.
D i,iii and iv.
414. The process of
designing test cases consists of the following activities:
i. Elaborate and
describe test cases in detail by using test design techniques.
ii. Specify the order
of test case execution.
iii. Analyse
requirements and specifications to determine test conditions.
iv. Specify expected
results.
According to the
process of identifying and designing tests, what is the correct order of these
activities?
A iii, i, iv, ii.
B iii, iv, i, ii.
C iii, ii, i, iv.
D ii, iii, i, iv.
415. What is the main
purpose of impact analysis for testers?
A To determine the
programming effort needed to make the changes.
B To determine what
proportion of the changes need to be tested.
C To determine how much
the planned changes will affect users.
D To determine how the existing system may be affected by changes.
416. Which of the
following requirements would be tested by a functional system test?
A The system must be able
to perform its functions for an average of 23 hours 50 mins per day.
B The system must perform
adequately for up to 30 users.
C The system must allow a user to amend the address of a customer.
D The system must allow
12,000 new customers per year.
417. In a system designed
to work out the tax to be paid:
An employee has £4000
of salary tax free.
The next £1500 is taxed
at 10%.
The next £28000 after
that is taxed at 22%.
Any further amount is
taxed at 40%.
To the nearest whole
pound, which of these is a valid Boundary Value Analysis test case?
A £28000.
B £33501.
C £32001.
D £1500.
418. Which of the
following defines the sequence in which tests should be executed?
A Test plan.
B Test procedure specification.
C Test case specification.
D Test design
specification.
419. Given
the following state transition
Which of the following
series of state transitions below will provide 0-switch coverage?
A A, B, E, B, C, F, D.
B A, B, E, B, C, F, F.
C A, B, E, B, C, D.
D A, B, C, F, F, D.
420. Given the following
decision table
Rule 1 Rule 2 Rule 3 Rule
4
Conditions False True
True True
Frequent Flyer Member Yes
Yes No No
Class Business Economy
Business Economy
Actions
Offer upgrade to First
Yes No No No
Offer upgrade to Business
NA Yes NA No
What is the expected
result for each of the following test cases?
A. Frequent flyer
member, travelling in Business class
B. Non-member,
travelling in Economy class
A A – Don’t offer any
upgrade, B – Don’t offer any upgrade.
B A – Don’t offer any
upgrade, B – Offer upgrade to Business class.
C A – Offer upgrade to
First, B – Don’t offer any upgrade.
D A – Offer upgrade to
First, B – Offer upgrade to Business class.
421. During which
fundamental test process activity do we determine if MORE tests are needed?
A Test implementation and
execution.
B Evaluating test exit
criteria.
C Test analysis and design.
D Test planning and
control.
422. What is the
difference between a project risk and a product risk?
A Project risks are
potential failure areas in the software or system; product risks are risks that
surround
the Project’s capability
to deliver its objectives.
B Project risks are the
risks that surround the project’s capability to deliver its objectives; product
risks
are potential failure
areas in the software or system.
C Project risks are
typically related to supplier issues, organizational factors and technical
issues; product
risks are typically
related to skill and staff shortages.
D Project risks are risks
that delivered software will not work; product risks are typically related to
supplier issues,
organizational factors and technical issues.
423. Given the following
specification, which of the following values for age are in the SAME
equivalence
partition?
If you are less than
18, you are too young to be insured.
Between 18 and 30
inclusive, you will receive a 20% discount.
Anyone over 30 is not
eligible for a discount.
A 17, 18, 19.
B 29, 30, 31.
C 18, 29, 30.
D 17, 29, 31.
424. Considering the
following pseudo-code, calculate the MINIMUM number of test cases for statement
coverage, and the
MINIMUM number of test cases for decision coverage respectively.
READ A
READ B
READ C
IF C>A THEN
IF C>B THEN
PRINT "C must be
smaller than at least one number"
ELSE
PRINT "Proceed to
next stage"
ENDIF
ELSE
PRINT "B can be
smaller than C"
ENDIF
A 3, 3.
B 2, 3.
C 2, 4.
D 3, 2.
425. Which of the
following is a benefit of independent testing?
A Code cannot be released
into production until independent testing is complete.
B Testing is isolated
from development.
C Developers do not have
to take as much responsibility for quality.
D Independent testers see other and different defects, and are
unbiased.
426. Which of the
following tools is most likely to contain a comparator?
A Dynamic Analysis tool.
B Test Execution tool.
C Static Analysis tool.
D Security tool.
427. Given the following
State Table:
A B2 B D E F
SS S1
S1 S2
S2 S3 S1
S3 ES S3
ES
Which of the following
represents an INVALID state transition?
A E from State S2.
B E from State S3.
C B from State S1.
D F from State S3.
428. Which of the
following is a characteristic of good testing in any life cycle model?
A All document reviews
involve the development team.
B Some, but not all,
development activities have corresponding test activities.
C Each test level has test objectives specific to that level.
D Analysis and design of
tests begins as soon as development is complete.
429. Which activity in
the fundamental test process includes evaluation of the testability of the
requirements and
system?
A Test analysis and design.
B Test planning and
control.
C Test closure.
D Test implementation and
execution.
430. The following
statements are used to describe the basis for creating test cases using either
black or
white box techniques:
i information about how
the software is constructed.
ii models of the
system, software or components.
iii analysis of the
test basis documentation.
iv analysis of the
internal structure of the components.
Which combination of
the statements describes the basis for black box techniques?
A ii and iii.
B ii and iv.
C i and iv.
D i and iii.
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