221. Which of the
following requirements is testable?
a) The system shall be
user friendly.
b) The safety-critical
parts of the system shall contain 0 faults.
c) The response time shall be less than one second for the
specified design load.
d) The system shall be
built to be portable.
222. Analyse the
following highly simplified procedure:
Ask: “What type of ticket
do you require, single or return?”
IF the customer wants
‘return’
Ask: “What rate, Standard
or Cheap-day?”
IF the customer replies
‘Cheap-day’
Say: “That will be
£11:20”
ELSE
Say: “That will be
£19:50”
ENDIF
ELSE
Say: “That will be £9:75”
ENDIF
Now decide the minimum
number of tests that are needed to ensure that all
the questions have been
asked, all combinations have occurred and all
replies given.
a)3
b)4
c)5
d)6
223. Error guessing:
a) supplements formal test design techniques.
b) can only be used in
component, integration and system testing.
c) is only performed in
user acceptance testing.
d) is not repeatable and
should not be used.
224. Which of the
following is NOT true of test coverage criteria?
a) Test coverage criteria
can be measured in terms of items exercised by a test suite.
b) A measure of test
coverage criteria is the percentage of user requirements covered.
c) A measure of test coverage criteria is the percentage of faults
found.
d) Test coverage criteria
are often used when specifying test completion criteria.
225. In prioritising what
to test, the most important objective is to:
a) find as many faults as
possible.
b) test high risk areas.
c) obtain good test
coverage.
d) test whatever is
easiest to test.
226. Given the following
sets of test management terms (v-z), and activity descriptions (1-5), which one
of
the following best
pairs the two sets?
v – test control
w – test monitoring
x - test estimation
y - incident management
z - configuration control
1 - calculation of
required test resources
2 - maintenance of record
of test results
3 - re-allocation of
resources when tests overrun
4 - report on deviation
from test plan
5 - tracking of anomalous
test results
a) v-3,w-2,x-1,y-5,z-4
b) v-2,w-5,x-1,y-4,z-3
c) v-3,w-4,x-1,y-5,z-2
d) v-2,w-1,x-4,y-3,z-5
227. Which one of the
following statements about system testing is NOT true?
a) System tests are often
performed by independent teams.
b) Functional testing is
used more than structural testing.
c) Faults found during
system tests can be very expensive to fix.
d) End-users should be involved in system tests.
228. Which of the
following is false?
a) Incidents should always be fixed.
b) An incident occurs
when expected and actual results differ.
c) Incidents can be
analysed to assist in test process improvement.
d) An incident can be
raised against documentation.
229. Enough testing has
been performed when:
a) time runs out.
b) the required level of confidence has been achieved.
c) no more faults are
found.
d) the users won’t find
any serious faults.
230. Which of the
following is NOT true of incidents?
a) Incident resolution is the responsibility of the author of the
software under test.
b) Incidents may be
raised against user requirements.
c) Incidents require
investigation and/or correction.
d) Incidents are raised
when expected and actual results differ.
231. Which of the
following is not described in a unit test standard?
a) syntax testing
b) equivalence
partitioning
c) stress testing
d) modified
condition/decision coverage
232. Which of the
following is false?
a) In a system two
different failures may have different severities.
b) A system is necessarily more reliable after debugging for the
removal of a fault.
c) A fault need not
affect the reliability of a system.
d) Undetected errors may
lead to faults and eventually to incorrect behaviour.
233. Which one of the
following statements, about capture-replay tools, is NOT correct?
a) They are used to
support multi-user testing.
b) They are used to capture and animate user requirements.
c) They are the most
frequently purchased types of CAST tool.
d) They capture aspects
of user behaviour.
234. How would you
estimate the amount of re-testing likely to be required?
a) Metrics from previous
similar projects
b) Discussions with the
development team
c) Time allocated for
regression testing
d) a & b
235. Which of the
following is true of the V-model?
a) It states that modules
are tested against user requirements.
b) It only models the
testing phase.
c) It specifies the test
techniques to be used.
d) It includes the verification of designs.
236. The oracle
assumption:
a) is that there is some
existing system against which test output may be checked.
b) is that the tester can routinely identify the correct outcome
of a test.
c) is that the tester
knows everything about the software under test.
d) is that the tests are
reviewed by experienced testers.
237. Which of the
following characterises the cost of faults?
a) They are cheapest to find in the early development phases and
the most expensive to fix in the latest test phases.
b) They are easiest to
find during system testing but the most expensive to fix then.
c) Faults are cheapest to
find in the early development phases but the most expensive to fix then.
d) Although faults are
most expensive to find during early development phases, they are cheapest to
fix
then.
238. Which of the
following should NOT normally be an objective for a test?
a) To find faults in the
software.
b) To assess whether the
software is ready for release.
c) To demonstrate that
the software doesn’t work.
d) To prove that the software is correct.
239. Which of the
following is a form of functional testing?
a) Boundary value analysis
b) Usability testing
c) Performance testing
d) Security testing
240. Which of the
following would NOT normally form part of a test plan?
a) Features to be tested
b) Incident reports
c) Risks
d) Schedule
241. Which of these activities
provides the biggest potential cost saving from the use of CAST?
a) Test management
b) Test design
c) Test execution
d) Test planning
242. Which of the
following is NOT a white box technique?
a) Statement testing
b) Path testing
c) Data flow testing
d) State transition testing
243. Data flow analysis
studies:
a) possible
communications bottlenecks in a program.
b) the rate of change of
data values as a program executes.
c) the use of data on paths through the code.
d) the intrinsic
complexity of the code.
244. In a system
designed to work out the tax to be paid:
An employee has £4000 of
salary tax free. The next £1500 is taxed at 10%
The next £28000 is taxed
at 22%
Any further amount is
taxed at 40%
To the nearest whole
pound, which of these is a valid Boundary Value Analysis test case?
a) £1500
b) £32001
c) £33501
d) £28000
245. An important
benefit of code inspections is that they:
a) enable the code to be tested before the execution environment
is ready.
b) can be performed by
the person who wrote the code.
c) can be performed by
inexperienced staff.
d) are cheap to perform.
246. Which of the
following is the best source of Expected Outcomes for User Acceptance Test
scripts?
a) Actual results
b) Program specification
c) User requirements
d) System specification
247. What is the main
difference between a walkthrough and an inspection?
a) An inspection is lead
by the author, whilst a walkthrough is lead by a trained moderator.
b) An inspection has a
trained leader, whilst a walkthrough has no leader.
c) Authors are not
present during inspections, whilst they are during walkthroughs.
d) A walkthrough is lead by the author, whilst an inspection is
lead by a trained moderator.
248. Which one of the
following describes the major benefit of verification early in the life cycle?
a) It allows the
identification of changes in user requirements.
b) It facilitates timely
set up of the test environment.
c) It reduces defect multiplication.
d) It allows testers to
become involved early in the project.
249. Integration testing
in the small:
a) tests the individual
components that have been developed.
b) tests interactions between modules or subsystems.
c) only uses components
that form part of the live system.
d) tests interfaces to
other systems.
250. Static analysis is
best described as:
a) the analysis of batch
programs.
b) the reviewing of test
plans.
c) the analysis of program code.
d) the use of black box
testing.
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