341. What makes an
inspection different from other review types?
a. It is led by a trained leader, uses formal entry and exit
criteria and checklists
b. It is led by the
author of the document to be inspected
c. It can only be used
for reviewing design and code
d. It is led by the
author, uses checklists, and collects data for improvement
342. Which of the
following is a valid collection of equivalence classes for the following
problem: An
integer field shall
contain values from and including 1 to and including 15
a. Less than 1, 1 through 15, more than 15
b. Negative numbers, 1
through 15, above 15
c. Less than 1, 1 through
14, more than 15
d. Less than 0, 1 through
14, 15 and more
343. Which of the
following is a valid collection of equivalence classes for the following
problem: Paying
with credit cards shall
be possible with Visa, Master and Amex cards only.
a. Visa, Master, Amex;
b. Visa, Master, Amex,
Diners, Keycards, and other option
c. Visa, Master, Amex,
any other card, no card
d. No card, other cards, any of Visa – Master – Amex
344. Which of the
following techniques are black box techniques?
a. State transition
testing, code testing, agile testing
b. Equivalence partitioning, state transition testing, decision
table testing
c. System testing,
acceptance testing, equivalence partitioning
d. System integration
testing, system testing, decision table testing
345. A defect management
system shall keep track of the status of every defect registered and enforce
the rules about
changing these states. If your task is to test the status tracking, which
method would be
best?
a. Logic-based testing
b. Use-case-based testing
c. State transition testing
d. Systematic testing
according to the V-model
346. If a program is
tested and 100% condition coverage is achieved, which of the following coverage
criteria is then
guaranteed to be achieved?
a. 100% branch coverage
b. 100% condition
coverage and 100% statement coverage
c. Equivalence class and
boundary value coverage
d. No other white box
coverage criterion is guaranteed to be fulfilled 100%
347. This part of a
program is given:-
WHILE (condition A) Do B
END WHILE
How many decisions should
be tested in this code in order to achieve 100% decision coverage?
a. 2
b. Indefinite
c. 1
d. 4
348. Why can be tester
dependent on configuration management?
a. Because configuration management assures that we know the exact
version of the testware and the test object
b. Because test execution
is not allowed to proceed without the consent of the change control board
c. Because changes in the
test object are always subject to configuration management
d. Because configuration
management assures the right configuration of the test tools
349. What test items
should be put under configuration management?
a. The test object, the test material and the test environment
b. The problem reports
and the test material
c. Only the test object.
The test cases need to be adapted during agile testing
d. The test object and
the test material
350. Why is successful
test execution automation difficult?
a. Because the tools for
automated testing require too much effort for learning
b. Because the maintenance of the test system is difficult
c. Because the test robot
tools are restricted in their ability to recognize outputs
d. Because the test robot
needs to be supported by a test management.
351. Which of the
following can be root cause of a bug in a software product?
(I) The project had
incomplete procedures for configuration management.
(II) The time schedule to
develop a certain component was cut.
(III) the specification
was unclear
(IV) Use of the code
standard was not followed up
(V) The testers were not
certified
a. (I) and (II) are
correct
b. (I) through (IV) are correct
c. (III) through (V) are
correct
d. (I), (II) and (IV) are
correct
352. Which of the
following is most often considered as components interface bug?
a. For two components exchanging data, one component used metric
units, the other one used British units
b. The system is
difficult to use due to a too complicated terminal input structure
c. The messages for user input
errors are misleading and not helpful for understanding the input error
cause
d. Under high load, the
system does not provide enough open ports to connect to
353. Which of the
following project inputs influence testing?
(I) contractual
requirements
(II) legal requirements
(III) Industry standards
(IV) application risk
(V) project size
a. (I) through (III) are
correct
b. All alternatives are correct
c. (II) and (V) are
correct
d. (I), (III) and (V) are
correct
354. If a program is
tested and 100% branch coverage is achieved, which of the following coverage
criteria is then
guaranteed to be achieved?
a. 100% Equivalence class
coverage
b. 100% Condition coverage and 100% Statement coverage
c. 100% Statement
coverage
d. 100% Multiple
condition coverage
355. This part of a
program is given:-
WHILE (condition A) Do B
END WHILE
How many paths should be
tested in this code in order to achieve 100% path coverage?
a. One
b. Indefinite
c. Two
d. Four
356. What is the purpose
of test exit criteria in the test plan?
a. To specify when to stop the testing activity
b. To set the criteria
used in generating test inputs
c. To ensure that the
test case specification is complete
d. To know when a
specific test has finished its execution
357. Which of the
following items need not to be given in an incident report?
a. The version number of
the test object
b. Test data and used
environment
c. Identification of the
test case that failed
d. The location and instructions on how to correct the fault
358. V-Model is:
a. A software development model that illustrates how testing
activities integrate with software development phases
b. A software life-cycle
model that is not relevant for testing
c. The official software
development and testing life-cycle model of ISTQB
d. A testing life cycle
model including unit, integration, system and acceptance phases
359. Why is incremental
integration preferred over “big bang” integration?
a. Because incremental integration has better early defects
screening and isolation ability
b. Because “big bang”
integration is suitable only for real time applications
c. Incremental
integration is preferred over “Big Bang Integration” only for “bottom up”
development
model
d. Because incremental
integration can compensate for weak and inadequate component
testing
360. Maintenance testing
is:
a. Testing management
b. Synonym of testing the
quality of service
c. Triggered by modifications, migration or retirement of existing
software
d. Testing the level of
maintenance by the vendor
361. A test engineer is
testing a Video Player (VCR), and logs the following report:
Title: Fast Forward stops
after 2 minutes. It happens every time
Expected result: Fast
forward continues till the end of the tape
Severity: High
Priority: Urgent
What important
information did the engineer leave out?
a. Identification
(Software and hardware) of the VCR
b. Actual result
c. History of the report
d. Ideas for the test
case improvement
362. Why is it necessary
to define a Test Strategy?
a. As there are many
different ways to test software, thought must be given to decide what will be
the
most effective way to
test the project on hand.
b. Starting testing
without prior planning leads to chaotic and inefficient test project
c. A strategy is needed
to inform the project management how the test team will schedule the
test-cycles
d. Software failure may cause loss of money, time, business
reputation, and in extreme cases injury and death. It is therefore critical to
have a proper test strategy in place.
363. Designing the test
environment set-up and identifying any required infrastructure and tools are a
part
of which phase
a) Test Implementation
and execution
b) Test Analysis and Design
c) Evaluating the Exit
Criteria and reporting
d) Test Closure
Activities
364. Test Implementation
and execution has which of the following major tasks?
i. Developing and
prioritizing test cases, creating test data, writing test procedures and
optionally
preparing the test
harnesses and writing automated test scripts.
ii. Creating the test
suite from the test cases for efficient test execution.
iii. Verifying that the
test environment has been set up correctly.
iv. Determining the exit
criteria.
a) i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
b) i,,iv are true and ii
is false
c) i,ii are true and
iii,iv are false
d) ii,iii,iv are true and
i is false
365. A Test Plan Outline
contains which of the following :-
i. Test Items
ii. Test Scripts
iii. Test Deliverables
iv. Responsibilities
a) i,ii,iii are true and
iv is false
b) i,iii,iv are true and ii is false
c) ii,iii are true and i
and iv are false
d) i,ii are false and iii
, iv are true
366. One of the fields on
a form contains a text box which accepts numeric values in the range of 18 to
25.
Indentify the invalid
Equivalance class
a) 17
b) 19
c) 24
d) 21
367. In a Examination a
candidate has to score minimum of 24 marks inorder to clear the exam. The
maximum that he can
score is 40 marks. Identify the Valid Equivalance values if the student clears
the
exam.
a) 22,23,26
b) 21,39,40
c) 29,30,31
d) 0,15,22
368. Which of the
following statements regarding static testing is false:
a) static testing requires the running of tests through the code
b) static testing
includes desk checking
c) static testing
includes techniques such as reviews and inspections
d) static testing can
give measurements such as cyclomatic complexity
369. Verification
involves which of the following :-
i. Helps to check the
Quality of the built product
ii. Helps to check that
we have built the right product.
iii. Helps in developing
the product
iv. Monitoring tool
wastage and obsoleteness.
a) Options i,ii,iii,iv
are true.
b) i is true and ii,iii,iv are false
c) i,ii,iii are true and
iv is false
d) ii is true and
i,iii,iv are false.
370. Component Testing is
also called as :-
i. Unit Testing
ii. Program Testing
iii. Module Testing
iv. System Component
Testing
a) i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
b) i,ii,iii,iv are false
c) i,ii,iv are true and
iii is false
d) all of above is true
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