431. What is typically
the MOST important reason to use risk to drive testing efforts?
A Because testing everything is not feasible.
B Because risk-based testing
is the most efficient approach to finding bugs.
C Because risk-based
testing is the most effective way to show value.
D Because software is
inherently risky.
432. Which of the
following defines the scope of maintenance testing?
A The coverage of the current
regression pack.
B The size and risk of any change(s) to the system.
C The time since the last
change was made to the system.
D Defects found at the
last regression test run.
433. Which is the MOST
important advantage of independence in testing?
A An independent tester
may find defects more quickly than the person who wrote the software. B An
independent tester may be
more focused on showing how the software works than the person who wrote
the software.
C An independent tester
may be more effective and efficient because they are less familiar with the
software than the person
who wrote it.
D An independent tester may be more effective at finding defects
missed by the person who wrote the software.
434. For testing, which
of the options below best represents the main concerns of Configuration
Management?
i. All items of
testware are identified and version controlled;
ii. All items of
testware are used in the final acceptance test;
iii. All items of
testware are stored in a common repository;
iv. All items of
testware are tracked for change;
v. All items of
testware are assigned to a responsible owner;
vi. All items of
testware are related to each other and to development items.
A i, iv, vi.
B ii, iii, v.
C i, iii, iv.
D iv, v, vi.
435. Which of the
following would be a valid measure of test progress?
A Number of undetected
defects.
B Total number of defects
in the product.
C Number of test cases not yet executed.
D Effort required to fix
all defects.
436. Which of following
statements is true? Select ALL correct options
Regression testing
should be performed:
i once a month
ii when a defect has
been fixed
iii when the test
environment has changed
iv when the software
has changed
A ii and iv.
B ii, iii and iv.
C i, ii and iii.
D i and iii.
437. In which of the following
orders would the phases of a formal review usually occur?
A Planning, preparation,
kick off, meeting, rework, follow up.
B Kick off, planning,
preparation, meeting, rework, follow up.
C Preparation, planning,
kick off, meeting, rework, follow up.
D Planning, kick off, preparation, meeting, rework, follow up.
438. Which of the
following are valid objectives for incident reports?
i. Provide developers and
other parties with feedback about the problem to enable identification,
isolation
and correction as
necessary.
ii. Provide ideas for
test process improvement.
iii. Provide a vehicle
for assessing tester competence.
iv. Provide testers with
a means of tracking the quality of the system under test.
A i, ii, iii.
B i, ii, iv.
C i, iii, iv.
D ii, iii, iv.
439. Consider the
following techniques. Which are static and which are dynamic techniques?
i. Equivalence
Partitioning.
ii. Use Case Testing.
iii.Data Flow Analysis.
iv.Exploratory Testing.
v. Decision Testing.
vi Inspections.
A i-iv are static, v-vi
are dynamic.
B iii and vi are static, i, ii, iv and v are dynamic.
C ii, iii and vi are
static, i, iv and v are dynamic.
D vi is static, i-v are
dynamic.
440. Why are static
testing and dynamic testing described as complementary?
A Because they share the
aim of identifying defects and find the same types of defect.
B Because they have
different aims and differ in the types of defect they find.
C Because they have
different aims but find the same types of defect.
D Because they share the aim of identifying defects but differ in
the types of defect they find.
441. Which of the
following are disadvantages of capturing tests by recording the actions of a
manual
tester?
i The script may be
unstable when unexpected events occur.
ii Data for a number of
similar tests is automatically stored separately from the script.
iii Expected results
must be added to the captured script.
iv The captured script
documents the exact inputs entered by the tester.
v When replaying a
captured test, the tester may need to debug the script if it doesn’t play
correctly.
A i, iii, iv, v.
B ii, iv and v.
C i, ii and iv.
D i and v.
442. Which of the
following is determined by the level of product risk identified?
A Extent of testing.
B Scope for the use of
test automation.
C Size of the test team.
D Requirement for
regression testing.
443. Deciding How much
testing is enough should take into account :-
i. Level of Risk
including Technical and Business product and project risk
ii. Project constraints
such as time and budget
iii. Size of Testing
Team
iv. Size of the
Development Team
a) i,ii,iii are true and
iv is false
b) i,,iv are true and ii
is false
c) i,ii are true and iii,iv are false
d) ii,iii,iv are true and
i is false
444. Test planning has
which of the following major tasks?
i. Determining the
scope and risks, and identifying the objectives of testing.
ii. Determining the
test approach (techniques,test items, coverage, identifying and interfacing the
teams
involved in testing ,
testware)
iii. Reviewing the Test
Basis (such as requirements,architecture,design,interface)
iv. Determining the
exit criteria.
a) i,ii,iv are true and iii is false
b) i,,iv are true and ii
is false
c) i,ii are true and
iii,iv are false
d) ii,iii,iv are true and
i is false
445. Evaluating testability
of the requirements and system are a part of which phase:-
a) Test Analysis and Design
b) Test Planning and
control
c) Test Implementation
and execution
d) Evaluating exit
criteria and reporting
446. One of the fields on
a form contains a text box which accepts alphabets in lower or upper case.
Indentify the invalid
Equivalance class value.
a. CLASS
b. cLASS
c. CLass
d. CLa01ss
447. In a system designed
to work out the tax to be paid:
An employee has £4000
of salary tax free. The next £1500 is taxed at 10% The next £28000 is taxed at
22% Any further amount
is taxed at 40% Which of these groups of numbers would fall into the same
equivalence class?
a) £4800; £14000; £28000
b) £5200; £5500; £28000
c) £28001; £32000; £35000
d) £5800; £28000; £32000
448. Which of the
following has highest level of independence in which test cases are :
a) Designed by persons
who write the software under test
b) Designed by a person
from a different section
c) Designed by a person from a different organization
d) Designed by another
person
449. We use the output of
the requirement analysis, the requirement specification as the input for
writing
:-
a) User Acceptance Test Cases
b) Integration Level Test
Cases
c) Unit Level Test Cases
d) Program specifications
450. Validation involves
which of the following
i. Helps to check the
Quality of the Built Product
ii. Helps to check that
we have built the right product.
iii. Helps in
developing the product
iv. Monitoring tool
wastage and obsoleteness.
a) Options i,ii,iii,iv
are true.
b) ii is true and i,iii,iv are false
c) i,ii,iii are true and
iv is false
d) iii is true and
i,ii,iv are false.
451. Which of the
following uses Impact Analysis most?
a) Component testing
b) Non-functional system
testing
c) User acceptance
testing
d) Maintenance testing
introduced or uncovered
as a result of the changes in the software being tested or in another related
or
unrelated software
component:
a) Re Testing .
b) Confirmation Testing
c) Regression Testing
d) Negative Testing
453. Impact Analysis
helps to decide :-
a) How much regression testing should be done.
b) Exit Criteria
c) How many more test
cases need to written.
d) Different Tools to
perform Regression Testing
454. Functional system
testing is:
a) testing that the
system functions with other systems
b) testing that the
components that comprise the system function together
c) testing the end to end functionality of the system as a whole
d) testing the system
performs functions within specified response times
455. Consider the below
state transition diagram of a switch. Which of the following represents an
invalid
state transition?
a) OFF to ON
b) ON to OFF
c) FAULT to ON
456. Peer Reviews are
also called as :-
a) Inspection
b) Walkthrough
c) Technical Review
d) Formal Review
457. Consider the
following statements:
i. 100% statement
coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage.
ii. 100% branch
coverage guarantees 100% statement coverage.
iii. 100% branch
coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage.
iv. 100% decision
coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage.
v. 100% statement
coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage.
a) ii is True; i, iii, iv
& v are False
b) i & v are True;
ii, iii & iv are False
c) ii & iii are True;
i, iv & v are False
d) ii, iii & iv are True; i & v are False
458. The Kick Off phase
of a formal review includes the following :-
a) Explaining the objective
b) Fixing defects found
typically done by author
c) Follow up
d) Individual Meeting
preparations
459. Match every stage
of the software Development Life cycle with the Testing Life cycle:
i. Hi-level design a
Unit tests
ii. Code b Acceptance
tests
iii. Low-level design c
System tests
iv. Business
requirements d Integration tests
a) i-d , ii-a , iii-c ,
iv-b
b) i-c , ii-d , iii-a ,
iv-b
c) i-b , ii-a , iii-d ,
iv-c
d) i-c , ii-a , iii-d , iv-b
460. Which of the
following is not phase of the Fundamental Test Process?
a) Test Planning and
Control
b) Test implementation
and Execution
c) Requirement Analysis
d) Evaluating Exit
criteria and reporting
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